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NCLEX-RN Dump Torrent | New NCLEX-RN Test Pattern

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Discuss the key features of the exam.

There are several key features of the exam:

Reading Comprehension Test: The reading comprehension test consists of 120 multiple choice questions. You have three-and-a-half hours to complete this section.
You are tested on how you would use critical thinking skills.
It tests if you understand the basics of the nursing process.
It is organized according to the nursing framework Meeting Client Needs.
The Exam: There is a maximum number of questions you can answer in the NCLEX-RN exam. It is a multiple-choice test.
The test includes a clinical scenario.
Essay Test: The essay test is an important component of the NCLEX-RN Exam. The question is designed to test your ability to analyze situations and determine the best course of action. This is similar to the way you were trained during nursing school.
It also tests your ability to make nursing judgments.

NCLEX-RN exam covers a broad range of topics related to nursing practice, including health promotion, disease prevention, patient care management, pharmacology, and more. NCLEX-RN exam consists of multiple-choice questions that assess a nurse's ability to apply knowledge, skills, and critical thinking to real-world situations. The NCLEX-RN is designed to test a nurse's ability to make sound clinical judgments, prioritize patient care needs, and provide safe and effective care.

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NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q241-Q246):

NEW QUESTION # 241
A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident.
He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is:

A. Side-lying, either left or right
B. Sitting with head support
C. Reclining to control bleeding
D. Any position in which the client is comfortable

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.

NEW QUESTION # 242
A client has been diagnosed as being preeclamptic. The physician orders magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of preeclampsia for:

A. Prevention of uterine contractions
B. Prevention of seizures
C. Sedation
D. Fetal lung protection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) MgSO4 is classified as an anticonvulsant drug. In preeclampsia management, MgSO4 is used for prevention of seizures. (B) MgSO4 has been used to inhibit hyperactive labor, but results are questionable. (C) Negative side effects such as respiratory depression should not be confused with generalized sedation. (D) MgSO4 does not affect lung maturity. The infant should be assessed for neuromuscular and respiratory depression.

NEW QUESTION # 243
A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:

A. Prevent systemic infection
B. Promote diuresis
C. Decrease ammonia formation
D. Acidify the small bowel

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Neomycin is an antibiotic, but this is not the Rationale for administering it to a client in hepatic coma. (B) Diuretics and salt-free albumin are used to promote diuresis in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (C) Neomycin destroys the bacteria in the intestines. It is the bacteria in the bowel that break down protein into ammonia. (D) Lactulose is administered to create an acid environment in the bowel. Ammonia leaves the blood and migrates to this acidic environment where it is trapped and excreted.

NEW QUESTION # 244
A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate while he is in restraints?

A. Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours.
B. Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are removed.
C. Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise.
D. Give fluids if the client requests them.

Answer: C

Explanation:
(A) Fluids (nourishment) should be offered at regular intervals whether the client requests (or refuses) them or not. (B) Skin integrity and circulation of the extremities should be checked regularly while the client is restrained, not only before restraints are applied and
after they are removed. (C) Vital signs should be checked at least every 2 hours. If the client remains agitated in restraints, vital signs should be monitored even more closely, perhaps every 1-2 hours. (D) Restraints should be released every 2 hours for exercise, one extremity at a time, to maintain muscle tone, skin and joint integrity, and circulation.

NEW QUESTION # 245
When discussing the relationship between exercise and insulin requirements, a 26-year-old client with IDDM should be instructed that:

A. When exercise is increased, insulin needs are increased
B. When exercise is decreased, insulin needs are decreased
C. When exercise is increased, there is no change in insulin needs
D. When exercise is increased, insulin needs are decreased

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) If the client's insulin is increased when activity level is increased, hypoglycemia may result. (B) Exercise decreased the blood sugar by promoting uptake of glucose by the muscles. Consequently, less insulin is needed to metabolize ingested carbohydrates. Extra food may be required for extra activity. (C) This statement directly contradicts the correct answer and is inaccurate. (D) When exercise is decreased, the client's insulin dose does not need to be altered unless the blood sugar becomes unstable.

NEW QUESTION # 246
......

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